Introduction: Last Sunday PM we started a series of studies on the Deity of Jesus Christ. Now I’m quite certain that every person sitting before me this PM believes this carnal doctrine of the Word of God, but there are many in this world who do not. It is very important that we be able to explain, from God’s Word, why we believe that Jesus is God rather than a good man or a created being. The difference, as we believe the Word of God teaches, is a matter of eternal consequence. What a person believes and trusts in as it has to do with who Jesus Christ is, determines where they will spend eternity!

Last Sunday PM we examined some clear statements from the New Testament that teach Jesus is God and not just a good man who walked this earth. Most of the passages of scripture we examined last week were also quotes Jesus made about Himself.

This evening I want to approach the subject of the deity of Jesus Christ by beginning some studies on the names claimed or given to Jesus. There are many names and we will not be able to look at all of them, but for this evening’s study I want to settle in on just one of those names - the name I AM.

The Apostle John in the Gospel of John uses this title many times, but there are two very clear times when Jesus uses it and then a very sharp response is noted from those who heard Him use it. The response of the religious leaders is telling. Tonight we will examine Jesus’ “I AM” statement in John 8:58 and compare that statement and the response of those who heard it, to what we find in John 10:30-33.

I. The Meaning and Importance of the title “I AM”

A. The OT meaning of the title

1. We find this title in Exodus 3:13, 14 “And Moses said unto God, Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them? And God said unto Moses, “I AM THAT I AM”: and he said, “Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, “I AM hath sent me unto you.”

2. This is from the context of God calling Moses to lead the children of Israel out of bondage in Egypt. Moses raised a number of objections and one of them was who it was that told Moses to do this when he, Moses, was asked.

3. The Hebrew word for “I AM” comes from the verb “to be”. The Hebrew word for God here is “Jawah” or Jehovah which is used 6,823 times in the Scriptures. Jehovah means - “One who is what He is.” It is thus a clear title of deity - it cannot be understood any other way.

B. The NT meaning of the title

1. In Greek, the words recorded in John 8:58 are "'prin abraam genesthai ego eimi." Literally, this is "Before Abraham was existing, I am." "Ego eimi" is literally, "I am." This is the present tense. In the Jehovah Witness bible it says "I have been" which is the perfect tense. In Greek, the word “his” would have been "aemane." But Jesus didn't use it here. He used the present tense, "ego eimi" which is "I am."

2. There are places, however, in the New Testament where the Greek present tense of 'ego eimi', "I am", can be translated into the English perfect tense, "I have been." An example of this is John 14:9 where Jesus says, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, In this verse, "Have I been" is originally the Greek present tense, 'ego eimi'. But here, Jesus was answering the statement in verse 8, "Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us." Since in English it is awkward to say, "I am with you so long and you still don't know me....?", it is then rendered as, "Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me," The translation of the Greek present into the English perfect tense is perfectly justifiable here because it doesn't make sense in English. But is it the case with John 8:58? Must it be translated as "I have been"? No. There is no linguistic requirement to translate it as "I have been" particularly when you notice that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus after he said, "ego eimi."

3. There is a big difference between saying “I AM” and “I have been” The title “I AM” is a clear identification with God and equality with God in all ways. If the words are translated “I have been” that aspect of Jesus’ equality with Jehovah in all ways is completely taken away. The phrase still implies that Jesus was before Abraham but it takes away what the Hebrew title Jehovah implies - “One who is what He is.” Jehovah Witnesses and other cults do not believe Jesus is God or equal to God the Father and so will not accept a translation of the Greek words “ego eimi” as “I AM”.

II. Two views for reaction of Jews to John 8:58

1. Some say that the reason the Jews wanted to kill Jesus after He said, "Before Abraham was, I am" is because it was the last straw in a series of difficult and insulting things Jesus had been saying to the Jews in John chapter 8. Others say that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus for saying "Before Abraham was, I am," because "I am" is close to God saying "I am that I am" in Exodus 3:14. In other words, we can make the case that for Jesus to say, "Before Abraham was, I am" was equivalent to claiming God's name for Himself. This is something the Jews would absolutely protest. Let's look at the arguments.

2. The first argument states that Jesus had upset the Jews so much by what He had been saying that when he finally made his statement in verse 58, it was the last straw, the Jews snapped, and then they tried to kill him. But, they maintain, it wasn't because Jesus was claiming the divine title. They had just had enough.

3. What had Jesus been saying? Following is a list of some key statements by Jesus in chapter 8.

1. "I am the light of the world" (8:12)

2. "I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me.(8:18).

3. "Ye neither know me, nor my Father" (8:19).

4. "Ye are from beneath, I am from above" (8:23).

5. "if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins" (8:24).

6. "I speak to the world those things which I have heard of him." (8:26).

7. "as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things." (8:28).

8. "I do always those things that please him." (8:29).

9. "I speak that which I have seen with My Father. . ." (8:38).

10. "ye seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham.” (8:40).

11. ". . . I proceeded forth and came from God. . ." (8:42).

12. “Verily, verily, I say unto you, If a man keep my saying, he shall never see death.”(8:51).

13. "It is my Father that honoreth Me..." (8:54).

14. "Before Abraham was, I am" (8:58).

4. The preceding list has many profound statements. It is perfectly understandable that the Jews would be upset. But, it was Jesus' statement in 8:58 that triggered their murderous attempt. Was it because Jesus said "Before Abraham was, I have been" or "Before Abraham was, I am." Which would be the phrase most likely to be the last straw for the Jews? It is quite possible that either statement would be sufficient. But, of course, any claim by Jesus to the divine name would be a stronger motivation for the Jews to kill Him.

5. Also, notice statements 1, 5, 11, and 14 in the list I just shared with you (read these again.) These are clear declarations by Jesus where He exalts Himself to a heavenly level. The Jews could easily see this and would protest, particularly when Jesus said, "Before Abraham was, I am. Since He did say, in Greek, "I am", it is more likely that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus for blasphemy. Consider Leviticus 24:16 which says, And he that blasphemeth the name of the LORD, he shall surely be put to death, and all the congregation shall certainly stone him: as well the stranger, as he that is born in the land, when he blasphemeth the name of the Lord, shall be put to death.

III. The Connection to John 10:30-33

1. Capital punishment was only for serious sins: blasphemy, adultery, etc.. From what I can see in the Bible, saying you had a preexistence isn't blasphemy. However, claiming to be one with God is quite different. In John 10:30-33 Jesus said, I and my Father are one. Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

2. Between John 8:59 where the Jews picked up stones to kill Jesus and John 10:30-33 where they again picked up stones to kill him, there is no mention of stoning whatsoever. John 10:31 is referencing back to John 8:59 when it says "The Jews took up stones again to stone Him." Note that they again wanted to kill Him and this time they give the reason why. They said that Jesus was claiming to be God. Now, where would they get that idea? Could it have been where he said, "Before Abraham was, I am"? Could it be from where Jesus said, "I and my Father are one" (10:30). Since they wanted to kill Him both times, it would seem that Jesus had been making some very serious claims. Or was it simply that the Pharisees misunderstood Jesus and that Jesus never did claim to be God?

3. But, if Jesus was not claiming to be God in John 8:58 and 10:30, then what was it that He said that warranted such a violent response from the Jews in both cases? What phrase from Jesus did the Jews react to and what 'misunderstanding' did they have about what it was Jesus said that led them to claim that he was making Himself out to be God?

4. In my opinion, the best explanation for the Jews wanting to kill Jesus is because Jesus was claiming equality with God. They considered this blasphemy. The cults, like the bad religious leaders who opposed Jesus, deny who Jesus really is as well.

IV. Other “I AM” statements in the Book of John

A. Absolute Emphatic "I AM" Statements

In these sayings, there is no predicate: John 4:26; 6:20; 8:24, 28, 58; 13:19; 18:5, 6, 8

(Caution: the RSV and other English Bibles often translate this phrase, "I am he", but the pronoun "he" is not explicit in the Greek text.)

Many interpreters believe that the Johannine Jesus is making divine claims with these statements, since in the Hebrew Bible the meaning of God's name (YHWH) is closely related to "I am" (Exod 3:14; 6:2-3; Deut 32:39; Isa 43:25; 51:12; etc.). In each of these the Greek words, “ego eimi” are used.

Ÿ 1. To the Samaritan Woman at Jacob's well near the town of Sychar: Jn. 4:26

Ÿ [lit.: "I am, the one speaking with you."]

Ÿ 2. To his disciples in the boat while Jesus is walking on the Sea of Galilee: Jn. 6:20

Ÿ "It is I (lit. "I Am"); do not be afraid."

Ÿ 3. To "the Jews" in Jerusalem at the Feast of Tabernacles: Jn. 8:24

Ÿ 4. Jn. 8:28

Ÿ 5. To his disciples at the Last Supper in Jerusalem: Jn. 13:19

Ÿ 6. To the soldiers and guards who come to arrest Jesus in the Garden of Gethsemane: Jn. 18:5

Ÿ 7. Jn. 18:6

Ÿ 8. Jn. 18:8

B. Predicate Emphatic "I Am" Statements

In these sayings, a metaphorical image completes the thought: John 6:35, 41, 48, 51; 8:12, 18, 23 (twice); 10:7, 9, 11, 14; 11:25; 14:6; 15:1, 5

Ÿ 1. John 6:35 - I am the Bread of Life

Ÿ 2. John 6:41 - I am the bread which came down from heaven

Ÿ 3. John 6:48 - I am that bread of life

Ÿ 4. John 6:51 - I am the living bread which came down from heaven

Ÿ 5. John 8:12 - I am the light of the world

Ÿ 6. John 8:23 - I am from above; I am not of this world

Ÿ 7. John 10:7 - I am the door of the sheep

Ÿ 8. John 10:9 - I am the door

Ÿ 9. John 10:11 - I am the good shepherd: the good shepherd giveth his life for the sheep

Ÿ 10. John 10:14 - I am the good shepherd and I know my sheep

Ÿ 11. John 11:25 - I am the resurrection, and the life

Ÿ 12. John 14:6 - I am the way, the truth, and the life

Ÿ 13. John 15:1, 5 - I am the vine

Conclusion: I believe the evidence is quite clear what John was doing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit of God by repeatedly connecting the name of Jehovah - “I AM” to Jesus. This ties in nicely to his stated purpose for the book in John 20:30,31 And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book: But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.


		Jesus Is The "I AM" Of The Old Testament

Home Baptist Basics Documents Messages Ministries Crusader Club Our Missionaries Our History Guest Book Contact Directions Helpful Links Announcements Vacation Bible School	Introduction: Last Sunday PM we started a series of studies on the Deity of Jesus Christ. Now I’m quite certain that every person sitting before me this PM believes this carnal doctrine of the Word of God, but there are many in this world who do not. It is very important that we be able to explain, from God’s Word, why we believe that Jesus is God rather than a good man or a created being. The difference, as we believe the Word of God teaches, is a matter of eternal consequence. What a person believes and trusts in as it has to do with who Jesus Christ is, determines where they will spend eternity! Last Sunday PM we examined some clear statements from the New Testament that teach Jesus is God and not just a good man who walked this earth. Most of the passages of scripture we examined last week were also quotes Jesus made about Himself. This evening I want to approach the subject of the deity of Jesus Christ by beginning some studies on the names claimed or given to Jesus. There are many names and we will not be able to look at all of them, but for this evening’s study I want to settle in on just one of those names - the name I AM. The Apostle John in the Gospel of John uses this title many times, but there are two very clear times when Jesus uses it and then a very sharp response is noted from those who heard Him use it. The response of the religious leaders is telling. Tonight we will examine Jesus’ “I AM” statement in John 8:58 and compare that statement and the response of those who heard it, to what we find in John 10:30-33. I. The Meaning and Importance of the title “I AM” A. The OT meaning of the title 1. We find this title in Exodus 3:13, 14 “And Moses said unto God, Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them? *And God said unto Moses, “I AM THAT I AM”: and he said, “Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, “I AM hath sent me unto you.”* 2. This is from the context of God calling Moses to lead the children of Israel out of bondage in Egypt. Moses raised a number of objections and one of them was who it was that told Moses to do this when he, Moses, was asked. 3. The Hebrew word for “I AM” comes from the verb “to be”. The Hebrew word for God here is “Jawah” or Jehovah which is used 6,823 times in the Scriptures. Jehovah means - “One who is what He is.” It is thus a clear title of deity - it cannot be understood any other way. B. The NT meaning of the title 1. In Greek, the words recorded in John 8:58 are "'prin abraam genesthai ego eimi." Literally, this is "Before Abraham was existing, I am." "Ego eimi" is literally, "I am." This is the present tense. In the Jehovah Witness bible it says "I have been" which is the perfect tense. In Greek, the word “his” would have been "aemane." But Jesus didn't use it here. He used the present tense, "ego eimi" which is "I am." 2. There are places, however, in the New Testament where the Greek present tense of 'ego eimi', "I am", can be translated into the English perfect tense, "I have been." An example of this is John 14:9 where Jesus says, *Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me,* In this verse, *"Have I been"* is originally the Greek present tense, 'ego eimi'. But here, Jesus was answering the statement in verse 8, "*Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us." Since in English it is awkward to say, "I am with you so long and you still don't know me....?", it is then rendered as, "Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me," The translation of the Greek present into the English perfect tense is perfectly justifiable here because it doesn't make sense in English. But is it the case with John 8:58? Must it be translated as "I have been"? No. There is no linguistic requirement to translate it as "I have been" particularly when you notice that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus after he said, "ego eimi." 3. There is a big difference between saying “I AM” and “I have been” The title “I AM” is a clear identification with God and equality with God in all ways. If the words are translated “I have been” that aspect of Jesus’ equality with Jehovah in all ways is completely taken away. The phrase still implies that Jesus was before Abraham but it takes away what the Hebrew title Jehovah implies - “One who is what He is.” Jehovah Witnesses and other cults do not believe Jesus is God or equal to God the Father and so will not accept a translation of the Greek words “ego eimi” as “I AM”. II. Two views for reaction of Jews to John 8:58 1. Some say that the reason the Jews wanted to kill Jesus after He said, "Before Abraham was, I am" is because it was the last straw in a series of difficult and insulting things Jesus had been saying to the Jews in John chapter 8. Others say that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus for saying "Before Abraham was, I am," because "I am" is close to God saying "I am that I am" in Exodus 3:14. In other words, we can make the case that for Jesus to say, "Before Abraham was, I am" was equivalent to claiming God's name for Himself. This is something the Jews would absolutely protest. Let's look at the arguments. 2. The first argument states that Jesus had upset the Jews so much by what He had been saying that when he finally made his statement in verse 58, it was the last straw, the Jews snapped, and then they tried to kill him. But, they maintain, it wasn't because Jesus was claiming the divine title. They had just had enough. 3. What had Jesus been saying? Following is a list of some key statements by Jesus in chapter 8. 1. "I am the light of the world"* (8:12) 2. "*I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me.(8:18). 3. "Ye neither know me, nor my Father"* (8:19). 4. *"Ye are from beneath, I am from above"* (8:23). 5. *"if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins"* (8:24). 6. "*I speak to the world those things which I have heard of him."* (8:26). 7. "*as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things."* (8:28). 8. "*I do always those things that please him." (8:29). 9. "I speak that which I have seen with My Father. . ."* (8:38). 10. "*ye seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham.” (8:40). 11. ". . . I proceeded forth and came from God. . ."* (8:42). 12. “Verily, verily, I say unto you, If a man keep my saying, he shall never see death.”(8:51). 13. "It is my Father that honoreth Me..." (8:54). 14. *"Before Abraham was, I am"* (8:58). 4. The preceding list has many profound statements. It is perfectly understandable that the Jews would be upset. But, it was Jesus' statement in 8:58 that triggered their murderous attempt. Was it because Jesus said "Before Abraham was, I have been" or "Before Abraham was, I am." Which would be the phrase most likely to be the last straw for the Jews? It is quite possible that either statement would be sufficient. But, of course, any claim by Jesus to the divine name would be a stronger motivation for the Jews to kill Him. 5. Also, notice statements 1, 5, 11, and 14 in the list I just shared with you (read these again.) These are clear declarations by Jesus where He exalts Himself to a heavenly level. The Jews could easily see this and would protest, particularly when Jesus said, "Before Abraham was, I am. Since He did say, in Greek, "I am", it is more likely that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus for blasphemy. Consider Leviticus 24:16 which says, And he that blasphemeth the name of the LORD, he shall surely be put to death, and all the congregation shall certainly stone him: as well the stranger, as he that is born in the land, when he blasphemeth the name of the Lord, shall be put to death. III. The Connection to John 10:30-33 1. Capital punishment was only for serious sins: blasphemy, adultery, etc.. From what I can see in the Bible, saying you had a preexistence isn't blasphemy. However, claiming to be one with God is quite different. In John 10:30-33 Jesus said, I and my Father are one. Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. 2. Between John 8:59 where the Jews picked up stones to kill Jesus and John 10:30-33 where they again picked up stones to kill him, there is no mention of stoning whatsoever. John 10:31 is referencing back to John 8:59 when it says "The Jews took up stones again* to stone Him." Note that they again wanted to kill Him and this time they give the reason why. They said that Jesus was claiming to be God. Now, where would they get that idea? Could it have been where he said, "Before Abraham was, I am"?* Could it be from where Jesus said, *"I and my Father are one"* (10:30). Since they wanted to kill Him both times, it would seem that Jesus had been making some very serious claims. Or was it simply that the Pharisees misunderstood Jesus and that Jesus never did claim to be God? 3. But, if Jesus was not claiming to be God in John 8:58 and 10:30, then what was it that He said that warranted such a violent response from the Jews in both cases? What phrase from Jesus did the Jews react to and what 'misunderstanding' did they have about what it was Jesus said that led them to claim that he was making Himself out to be God? 4. In my opinion, the best explanation for the Jews wanting to kill Jesus is because Jesus was claiming equality with God. They considered this blasphemy. The cults, like the bad religious leaders who opposed Jesus, deny who Jesus really is as well. IV. Other “I AM” statements in the Book of John A. Absolute Emphatic "I AM" Statements In these sayings, there is no predicate: John 4:26; 6:20; 8:24, 28, 58; 13:19; 18:5, 6, 8 (Caution: the RSV and other English Bibles often translate this phrase, "I am he", but the pronoun "he" is not explicit in the Greek text.) Many interpreters believe that the Johannine Jesus is making divine claims with these statements, since in the Hebrew Bible the meaning of God's name (YHWH) is closely related to "I am" (Exod 3:14; 6:2-3; Deut 32:39; Isa 43:25; 51:12; etc.). In each of these the Greek words, “ego eimi” are used. Ÿ 1. To the Samaritan Woman at Jacob's well near the town of Sychar: Jn. 4:26 Ÿ [lit.: "I am, the one speaking with you."] Ÿ 2. To his disciples in the boat while Jesus is walking on the Sea of Galilee: Jn. 6:20 Ÿ "It is I (lit. "I Am"); do not be afraid." Ÿ 3. To "the Jews" in Jerusalem at the Feast of Tabernacles: Jn. 8:24 Ÿ 4. Jn. 8:28 Ÿ 5. To his disciples at the Last Supper in Jerusalem: Jn. 13:19 Ÿ 6. To the soldiers and guards who come to arrest Jesus in the Garden of Gethsemane: Jn. 18:5 Ÿ 7. Jn. 18:6 Ÿ 8. Jn. 18:8 B. Predicate Emphatic "I Am" Statements In these sayings, a metaphorical image completes the thought: John 6:35, 41, 48, 51; 8:12, 18, 23 (twice); 10:7, 9, 11, 14; 11:25; 14:6; 15:1, 5 Ÿ 1. John 6:35 - I am the Bread of Life Ÿ 2. John 6:41 - I am the bread which came down from heaven Ÿ 3. John 6:48 - I am that bread of life Ÿ 4. John 6:51 - I am the living bread which came down from heaven Ÿ 5. John 8:12 - I am the light of the world Ÿ 6. John 8:23 - I am from above; I am not of this world Ÿ 7. John 10:7 - I am the door of the sheep Ÿ 8. John 10:9 - I am the door Ÿ 9. John 10:11 - I am the good shepherd: the good shepherd giveth his life for the sheep Ÿ 10. John 10:14 - I am the good shepherd and I know my sheep Ÿ 11. John 11:25 - I am the resurrection, and the life Ÿ 12. John 14:6 - I am the way, the truth, and the life Ÿ 13. John 15:1, 5 - I am the vine Conclusion: I believe the evidence is quite clear what John was doing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit of God by repeatedly connecting the name of Jehovah - “I AM” to Jesus. This ties in nicely to his stated purpose for the book in John 20:30,31 And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book: But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.